Who Stole the Land
of Israel ? r1
Why do
the anti-Zionists feel that a thousand-year old claim by Arabs who were never
ruled by Palestinian Arabs has legitimacy, while a 1,900-year claim by Jews to
the land should be rejected as absurd?
So let
us see if we have this straight. The anti-Zionists claim that the Jews have no
right to the land of Israel because before Israel was re-created in 1948, Israel re-assumed its sovereignty on May
15, 1948 , but
it was reconstituted in 1920 under international law and treaties, with the
British as trustee for the Jews to promote Jewish immigration, until the Jews
comprise a majority. It had been almost 1,900 years since the last time that
the Jewish people exercised sovereignty over the Land of Israel . And the anti-Zionists claim that it is
absurd to argue that anyone still has rights to land that was last governed
with sovereignty 1,900 years ago. They forget to mention that Jews were always
residing in Israel and in varying population census.
And on what basis do they argue that the Arabs have some legitimate claim to these same lands? On the basis of the claim that the various Arab-Muslims rulers last exercised sovereignty as an occupier over that land 1,000 years ago.
And on what basis do they argue that the Arabs have some legitimate claim to these same lands? On the basis of the claim that the various Arab-Muslims rulers last exercised sovereignty as an occupier over that land 1,000 years ago.
Are
you all with me? 1,900 year-old-claims by the Jews are inadmissible.
Thousand-year-old of numerous rulers, that the Arab-Muslim claims trump them
and are indisputable.
Now let us emphasize that even the thousand-year-old Arab claim is not the same thing as a claim on behalf of Palestinian [sic] Arabs. After all, the last time that Palestinian Arabs held sovereignty or control over the lands of "Palestine " was … never. There has never been
a Palestinian Arab state in Palestine . Ever.
Now let us emphasize that even the thousand-year-old Arab claim is not the same thing as a claim on behalf of Palestinian [sic] Arabs. After all, the last time that Palestinian Arabs held sovereignty or control over the lands of "
It is
true that various Arab rulers once exercised its occupation and control over
parts or all of historic Palestine - Israel . There were small Nomadic kingdoms in
the south of "Palestine " already in late Biblical days, and they were
important military and political allies of the Jews, who exercised sovereignty for
over 1,000 years back then in the Land of Israel , which extended all the way to Mesopotamia . After the rise of Islam, historic
"Palestine " was for a time indeed part of a
larger numerous ruling Arab-Muslim kingdoms or caliphate. But that ended in
1071 CE, when Palestine came under the rule of the Seljuk Turks and shortly
afterwards by the Crusaders for about 200 years.
That
was the last time Palestine had an Arab-Muslim ruler. After that, it was always
ruled by a long series of Ottomans, Mamluks, other Turks, Crusaders, British,
and — briefly — French. And in any case, why does the fact that Palestine once was
occupied by a larger Arab-Muslim empire make it any more "Arab" than
the fact that it also was once part of larger Roman, Greek, Persian, Turkish,
or British empires? Now it is true that historic Palestine probably once had a population majority
who were Arab Muslims and Christians, but today it has a population majority
who are Jews.
So if
population majorities are what determine legitimacy of sovereignty, Israel is at least as legitimate as any other
country.
So why exactly do the anti-Zionists claim that a thousand-year old claim by various Arab-Muslims who were never ruled by Palestinian Arabs has any legitimacy, while a 1,900-year legitimate claim by Jews to its own historical ancestral land should be rejected as absurd, even though the Supreme Allied Powers after WWI had signed a treaty that guaranteed Palestine as the land for the Jewish National Home (The British in violation of international law and treaties reallocated about 80% of Jewish land east of the Jordan River to the new Arab state of Transjordan, which received its independence in 1946). These terms were confirmed by the 1920 treaty of Sevres andLausanne , including the 1919 Faisal Weitzman
Agreement. (The Supreme Allied Powers also allocated over 5 million square
miles to the Arabs). These treaties were incorporated by the 52 members of the League of Nations , which set-up the Mandate for Palestine to reconstitute the Jewish sovereignty
in the land. After the British abandoned its obligation to the Mandate for Palestine . The United Nations recognized that the
terms of the treaty of Jewish majority has been reached and granted Israel sovereignty in 1947?
So why exactly do the anti-Zionists claim that a thousand-year old claim by various Arab-Muslims who were never ruled by Palestinian Arabs has any legitimacy, while a 1,900-year legitimate claim by Jews to its own historical ancestral land should be rejected as absurd, even though the Supreme Allied Powers after WWI had signed a treaty that guaranteed Palestine as the land for the Jewish National Home (The British in violation of international law and treaties reallocated about 80% of Jewish land east of the Jordan River to the new Arab state of Transjordan, which received its independence in 1946). These terms were confirmed by the 1920 treaty of Sevres and
The
anti-Zionists say it is because the thousand-year-old Arab deceptive claim is
more recent than the older legitimate Jewish claim. But if national claims to
lands become more legitimate when they are more recent, then surely the most
legitimate of all is that of the remaining indigenous Jews of Israel have
absolute right to the lands of Israel , also because it is the most recent!
The
other claim by the anti-Zionists is that Jews have no rights to the lands of Israel (historic Palestine ) because they moved there from some
other places. Now never mind that there was actually always a Jewish habitation
living in the lands of Israel even when it was under the sovereignty of Romans,
Greeks, Byzantines, Arabs, Crusaders, Mamluks, Turks, French or British.
Does
the fact that Jews moved to the land of Israel from other places disqualify them from
exercising sovereignty there? The claim would be absurd enough even if we were
to ignore that fact; that most "Palestinian Arabs" also moved to Palestine from neighboring countries, starting in
the late nineteenth century. But more generally, does the fact that peoples
that move from one locality to another deprive it of its claims to its legitimate
sovereignty in its new abode? Does this fact necessitate the conclusion that
they need to pack up and leave, as the anti-Zionists insist?
If it
does, then it goes without saying that the Americans and Canadians must lead
the way and show the Israelis the light, by returning all lands that they
seized from the Indians and the Mexicans to their original owners and going
back to whence they came. For that matter, the Mexicans of Spanish ancestry
also need to leave. The Anglo-Saxons, meaning the English, will be invited to
turn the British
Isles over to
their rightful original Celtic and Druid owners, while they return to their own
ancestral Saxon homeland in northern Germany and Denmark . The Danes of course will be asked to
move aside, in fact to move back to their Norwegian and Swedish homelands, to
make room for the returning Anglo-Saxons.
But
that is just a beginning. The Spanish will be called upon to leave the Iberian Peninsula that they wrongfully occupy, and return
it to the Celt Iberians. (The Muslims occupied Spain for about 700 years, through the late
1400's, how come they are not demanding Spain as their land). Similarly the
Portuguese occupiers will leave their lands and return them to the Lusitanian's.
The Magyars will go back where they came from and leave Hungary to its true owners. The Australians and
New Zealanders obviously will have to end their occupations of lands that do
not belong to them. The Thais will leave Thailand . The Bulgarians will return to their Volga homeland and abandon occupied Bulgaria . Anyone speaking Spanish will be
expected to end his or her forced occupation of Latin America . It goes without saying that the French
will lose almost all their lands to their rightful owners. The Turks will go
back to Mongolia and leave Anatolia altogether, returning it to the Greeks.
The Germans will go back to Got land. The Italians will return the boot to the
Etruscans and Greeks.
Ah,
but that leaves the Arabs. First, all of northern Africa , from Mauritania to Egypt and Sudan , will have to be immediately abandoned
by the illegal Arab occupiers and squatters, and returned to their lawful
original Berber, Punic, Greek, and Vandal owners. Occupied Syria and Lebanon must be released at once from the cruel
occupation of the Arab imperialist aggressors. Iraq must be returned to the Assyrians and
Chaldeans. Southern
Arabia must be
returned to the Abyssinians. The Arabs may retain control of the central
portion of the Arabian
Peninsula as
their homeland. But not the oil fields.
Oh,
and the Palestinian Arabs infiltrators, usurpers and squatters will of course
have to return the lands they are illegally and wrongfully occupying, turning
them over to their legal and rightful owners, which would of course be the Jews,
who are the only remaining indigenous people!
YJ
Draiman
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